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Sunday, August 15, 2010

[shia_strength] Bayat (Objection and it’s reply)

 

Objection and it's reply

Some people object that except for Imam Mahdi (a.s.) all the previous Imams (a.s.) had pledged al­legiance to the rulers of their time. They had co­operated with them  time and again. And this is the proof of their pledge of allegiance. Ultimately they quote the famous tradition from Imam Hasan al-Mujtaba (a.s.) that he said:

"There is no one amongst us (Imams) who had not been under the pledge to the oppressor of his time. Except that Qaim (one who will raise) behind whom Isa ibn Maryam (a.s..) will recite Namaz. And whose birth shall be kept secret by Allah. And who will go into occupation and until the time of his reappear­ance he will not have lo give allegiance to any one. And he is the ninth descendant of my brother Husain (a.s.)

(Kamaluddin, vol. 1, pg. 316, Chap.29, Tradition no. 2)

The skeptics argue that Imam (a.s.) had himself said that they had a pledge of allegiance with the rulers. In the same way Imam Ali (a.s.) had co­operated with the first two Shaikhs (Abu Bakr and Umar) in every aspect, etc… In order to reply the above sentence we say that it is a lengthy tradition. And the context clearly shows that every Imam is Muftarz-e-Ita'at (One whose obedience is obligatory). It is different matter that somebody assumes authority over the people by cunning and intrigue!

Actually the above-quoted tradition is as follows:

Imam Hasan (a.s.) was seated in the company of a few people when the ruler of Syria (Muawiya) entered, some of the people pledged allegiance to him. Upon this Imam (a.s.) said:

"Do you not know that truly, I am for you "Imam-e-Muftarz-e-Ita't? (Imam whose obedience is obliga­tory)"

Thus it means that Imam (a.s.) had actually ob­jected to the people for not obeying him, when it was obligatory for them to do so. Instead they were prepared to follow someone else.

to be contd

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